THE title is not a joke. Let me establish my anti-credentials. I am a functioning Catholic. Thus, inevitably, I hold ALL other “religions” to be of demonic or human origin, based in deception and/or malice. However, my Faith encourages me to be (1) fair and (2) truthful… at least some times. Plus, I like advancing unpopular (even impossible) positions.
The general view of Mohammedanism is that it was violent and aggressive from its origins. From roughly 650AD to tomorrow it encouraged its members to murder, carry on wars, invade, conquer etc. This is evidenced by the historical record that shows the numerous wars this movement has been involved in. It IS a matter of simple math. If a religion is at war from year 1 to year 17 then it was in a war for 17 years, right? Not necessarily.
Let me give an example from European history, specifically the 30 Years War, which (not surprisingly) went on from 1618 to 1648. It began as a religious war (Catholic versus Protestant). On one side was the Holy Roman Empire and Spain. On the other side were some rebellious German principalities, Denmark, Sweden and France. I have written the complete truth, and yet it conveys very little of the reality. Many of the smaller German states were eliminated early in the war. Denmark entered after it had begun, was crushed and withdrew. Sweden fought for years (1630 onward), but only after Denmark left the war. France entered only at the later stages (1635), as did Spain(1634).
So did Spain “really” fight in that war? Sort of. It fought in approximately one half. Consider this. You are trying to measure to what degree Spain was war-like in the 17th Century. As it fought for “30 Years” it was quite warlike in the first third. As it stayed out of a major war for 16 years, and fought only in one half, then it was not that warlike, was it? It is NOT a simple matter of math. The criteria are, at best, indefinite.
The Hundred Years War was fought between England and France for (over) 100 years. The disagreement centered upon a claim made by the English kings for the crown of France. This is clear, no? For years, part of France, ruled by the Dukes of Burgundy, fought on the side of England. Was this a (new) civil war, going on at the same time? Was France then twice as warlike, as it was fighting two wars at once? During those hundred plus years there were truces, treaties and times of no fighting. If there were no fighting can these time periods be considered as part of the war? When the fighting began again, was this a new war? France gave up, officially, accepted an English king, and the war was over, right? Not really. St Joan of Arc got involved and France ignored its formal surrender and won the new, or renewed, war… or was it the same old war?
My point is this. For purposes of questioning answers on “Jeopardy” particular dates for wars beginning, continuing and ending, may be useful. And high school history teachers need something to use as test materials. But the real world is not so neat.
Let me in conclusion refer to one Islamic “incident.” From roughly 711AD to 1492AD the Islamic Moors in and of Spain were involved in a war, called the Reconquista. That is the Catholic forces were trying to force them into Africa. Does this seven-century effort make Islam more war-like? Does the fact that it was mostly a defensive war against invading foreign “Crusaders” change judgments? What about the fact that the Moors were the original aggressive invaders in 711?
I am simply arguing that fair and just judgments are not so easy to make. It is far easier and more pleasant to rely on our prejudices, and then alter the facts to fit. You have my permission to do so.